Simulation Test

TOEFL ITP 

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The test will give you an indication of your score and provide feedback on areas to improve.

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You only have 35 minutes (2100 seconds) to complete the test and your answers will be submitted automatically.

 

The time is up. Thank you for taking TOEFL ITP Prediction Test Vol. 2 by Lister

Password for Section 2 -  Structure and Written Expression.
" structure231 "

 


Welcome to TOEFL ITP Online Prediction Test
Section 1 : Listening Section

The test uses academic and social content to evaluate the English-language proficiency of non-native English speakers.

 

Information to Test takers

 Listening Section

All questions are multiple choice.

Number of Questions : 50 items

Total time allocation : 35 minutes

Please make sure you have a stable internet connection before starting the test.

Good Luck!

 

Complete the form below correctly before starting the test.

At the end of the test, the score report and certificate will be sent to your email directly.

Please make sure to type your full name correctly. Your name will be written on the Certificate.

 

Section 1: Listening Comprehension

In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in this test. When you take the actual TOEFL test, you will not be allowed to take notes or write in your test book. Try to work on Practice Test in the same way.

 

PART A

 

1. Choose the best answer

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You only have 25 minute (1500 seconds) to complete the test and your answers will be submitted automatically.

 

The time is up. Thank you for taking TOEFL ITP Prediction Test Vol. 2 by Lister

Password for Section 3 -  Reading Comprehension.
" reading835 "


Welcome to TOEFL ITP Online Prediction Test
Section 2 : Structure and Written Expression.

The test uses academic and social content to evaluate the English-language proficiency of non-native English speakers.

 

Information to Test takers

 Structure and Written Expression.

All questions are multiple choice.

Number of Questions : 40 items

Total time allocation : 25 minutes

Please make sure you have a stable internet connection before starting the test.

Good Luck!

 

Please Complete "Section 1 : Listening Section" first to get the password

Complete the form below correctly before starting the test.

At the end of the test, the score report and certificate will be sent to your email directly.

Please make sure to type your full name correctly. Your name will be written on the Certificate.

 

Section 2: Structure and Written Expression
This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions for each type.

Structure
Directions: Questions 1 – 15 are incomplete sentence. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked (a), (b), (c), and (d). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.

 

1. .............. are low in cholesterol and often come from corn, soybean, or olives.

2. Wood that has been specially treated is ......................... regular wood.

3. By the process of evaporation, humans lose water ........ their skin.

4. A large corporation is broken down into many departments, each of which has ...............

5. In 1875, while living in Paterson, N.J., ................ his first plans for the submarine.

6. The Babylonians invented a system of written numbers ............. the Mayan Indians of Central America.

7. The flamingo is similar to the heron, stork, and spoonbill, but .............. a longer neck and webbed feet.

8. In 1938, many people listening to the radio heard a report .............. had landed in New Jersey.

9. For professional athletes, constant practice is required .............. in condition.

10. .................. was the meeting place of the Continent Congress.

11. Even in the United States, Chines food is often ............... with chopsticks.

12. All the members of Congress wanted to know .......... the president planned on postponing the vote on health care reform

13. On summer weekends, there are ............. cars on the roads near the beach that walking often becomes the better choice.

14. ..............residents of this district will be voting on whether they should become independent of the rest of the city.

15. William Jennings Bryan was .............. rigid in his beliefs that not even three losing presidential bids could change him.

Written Expression
Directions: In questions 16 – 40, each sentence has four underlines words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (a), (b), (c), and (d). Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

 

16. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

17. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

18. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

19. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

20. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

21. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

22. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

23. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

24. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

25. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

26. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

27. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

28. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

29. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

30. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

31. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

32. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

33. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

34. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

35. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

36. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

37. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

38. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

39. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

40. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

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You only have 55 minute (3300 seconds) to complete the test and your answers will be submitted automatically.

 

The time is up. Thank you for taking TOEFL ITP Prediction Test Vol. 2 by Lister

 


Welcome to TOEFL ITP Online Prediction Test
Section 3 : Reading Comprehension 

The test uses academic and social content to evaluate the English-language proficiency of non-native English speakers.

 

Information to Test takers

This is  sections to the test including Reading Comprehension.

All questions are multiple choice.

Number of Questions : 50 items

Total time allocation : 55 minutes

Please make sure you have a stable internet connection before starting the test.

Good Luck!

 

Please Complete "Section 2 : Structure and Written Expression" first to get the password

Complete the form below correctly before starting the test.

At the end of the test, the score report and certificate will be sent to your email directly.

Please make sure to type your full name correctly. Your name will be written on the Certificate.

 

Section 3 Reading Comprehension
DIRECTIONS: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by several questions about it. For questions 1-50, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.

Passage One | Questions 1 – 9

1. The author refers to the ocean bottom as a “frontier” in line 2 because it

2. The word “inaccessible” in line 3 is closest in meaning to

3. The author mentions outer space in line 6 because

4. Which of the following is true of the Glomar Challenger?

5. The word “extracting” in line 12 is closest in meaning to

6. The Deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was

7. The word “strength” in line 18 is closest in meaning to

8. The word “strength” in line 18 is closest in meaning to

9. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the Deep Sea Drilling Project?

Passage Two | Questions 10 – 21

10. What does the passage mainly discuss?

11. According to the passage, when did Canada's baby boom begin?

12. The word “five” in line 3 refers to

13. The word “surging” in line 4 is closest in meaning to

14. The author suggests that in Canada during the 1950’s

15. The word “trend” in line 10 is closest in meaning to

16. The word “peak” in line 13 is closest in meaning to

17. When was the birth rate in Canada at its lowest postwar level?

18. The author mentions all of the following as causes of declines in population growth after 1957 EXCEPT

19. It can be inferred from the passage that before the Industrial Revolution

20. The word "It" in line 23 refers to

21. The phrase “prior to” in line 24 is closest in meaning to

Passage Three | Questions 22 – 30

22. The word “Advocates” in line 3 is doses in meaning to which of the following?

23. In line 4, the word “others” refers to

24. The “welcome development” mentioned in line 6 is an increase in

25. According to the first paragraph, which of the following is true about the term “organic foods”?

26. The word “unsubstantiated” in line 14 is closest in meaning to

27. The word “maintain” in line 19 is closest in meaning to

28. The author implies that there is cause for concern, if consumers with limited incomes buy organic foods instead of conventionally grown foods because

29. According to the last paragraph, consumers who believe that organic foods are better than conventionally grown foods are often

30. What is the author’s attitude toward the claims made by advocates of health foods?

Passage Four | Questions 31 – 40

31. What does the passage mainly discuss?

32. The word “they” in line 4 refers to

33. What aspect of drama does the author discuss in the first paragraph?

34. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a common element of theater and ritual?

35. The word “considerable” in line 14 is closest in meaning to

36. The word “enactment” in line 15 is closest in meaning to

37. The word “they” in line 16 refers to

38. According to the passage, what is the main difference between ritual and drama?

39. The passage supports which of the following statements?

40. Where in the passage does the author discuss the separation of the stage and the audience?

Passage Five | Questions 41 – 50

41. What does the passage mainly discuss?

42. The word “Staggering” in line 1 is closest in meaning to

43. The word “devastated” in line 3 is closest in meaning to

44. According to the passage, which of the following statements about the damage in the South is correct?

45. The passage refers to all of the following as necessary steps following the Civil War EXCEPT

46. The word “task” in line 15 refers to

47. Why does the author mention a popular song in lines 20 – 24?

48. The word “them” in line 26 refers to

49. Which of the following can be inferred from the phrase “... it was unlikely that a jury from Virginia, a Southern Confederate state, would convict them” (lines 24 – 25)?

50. It can be inferred from the passage that President Johnson pardoned the Southern leaders in order to

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