Simulation Test

TOEFL ITP

Welcome to Lister Simulation Test Online

The test will give you an indication of your score and provide feedback on areas to improve.

IMPORTANT : Please Make sure you have a stable internet connection before starting the test.

Good Luck!

You only have 35 minutes (2100 seconds) to complete the test and your answers will be submitted automatically.

The time is up. Thank you for taking TOEFL ITP Prediction Test Vol. 2 by Lister

Password for Section 2 - Structure and Written Expression.
" structure231 "

Welcome to TOEFL ITP Online Prediction Test
Section 1 : Listening Section

The test uses academic and social content to evaluate the English-language proficiency of non-native English speakers.

Information to Test takers

Listening Section

All questions are multiple choice.

Number of Questions : 50 items

Total time allocation : 35 minutes

Please make sure you have a stable internet connection before starting the test.

Good Luck!

Complete the form below correctly before starting the test.

At the end of the test, the score report and certificate will be sent to your email directly.

Please make sure to type your full name correctly. Your name will be written on the Certificate.

Section 1: Listening Comprehension

In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in this test. When you take the actual TOEFL test, you will not be allowed to take notes or write in your test book. Try to work on Practice Test in the same way.

PART A

1. Choose the best answer

a. He makes a lot of money.

b. He has just been left some money.

c. He doesn't believe three hundred dollars is enough.

d. He can't afford to spend that much.

2. Choose the best answer

a. He knows what is wrong with the watch.

b. The woman doesn't need to buy another battery.

c. The woman should get a new watch.

d. The jewelry store can probably repair the woman's watch.

3.Choose the best answer

a. He has another meeting to attend on that day.

b. He's available either day.

c. He can't attend a two-day conference.

d. Not everybody will go to the same meeting.

4. Choose the best answer

a. Go to the beach with her friends.

b. Postpone her meeting with Professor Jones.

c. See Professor Jones after class.

d. Give a speech in Professor Jones's class.

5. Choose the best answer

a. She isn't a very good student.

b. She hasn't gotten her grades yet.

c. She shouldn't worry about her grades.

d. She doesn't like to talk about grades.

6. Choose the best answer

a. The classes have improved his health.

b. His new glasses fit better than the old ones.

c. He's thinking of taking exercise classes.

d. He's unhappy about his life.

7. Choose the best answer

a. She also found the book difficult.

b. She has learned a lot about names.

c. She doesn't remember the title of the novel.

d. She read a different book.

8. Choose the best answer

a. They'll have to go to a later show.

b. The people in line all have tickets.

c. She doesn't want to go to the second show.

d. They won't have to wait much longer.

9. Choose the best answer

a. If it's too late for herb drop the course.

b. If she sympathizes with him.

c. If she apologized for what she did.

d. If she regrets taking the course.

10. Choose the best answer

a. She'll be traveling during winter break.

b. She'll be working during vacation.

c. She's looking forward to going home.

d. She wants to hire another research assistant.

11. Choose the best answer

a. He's glad he called the doctor.

b. He wants to change the appointment.

c. He can't come until 4:15.

d. He was confused about the date of the appointment.

12. Choose the best answer

a. No one believes he won the scholarship.

b. He's surprised that he got the scholarship.

c. It isn't true that he won the scholarship.

d. He's glad to award the woman the scholarship.

13. Choose the best answer

a. During economics class.

b. Before economics.

c. In about an hour.

d. The next day.

14. Choose the best answer

a. The nurse wasn't able to help her.

b. She's going to help the nurse as soon as she feels better.

c. She thinks she should ask the nurse for a pill.

d. She feels sleepy because of the medicine she took.

15. Choose the best answer

a. Whether she can make a proposal.

b. Whether Bill needs her help.

c. Whether she can review Bill's summary.

d. Whether she can speak for Bill.

16. Choose the best answer

a. He can't wear the shirt right now.

b. He can't find the shirt.

c. He doesn't like the shirt.

d. He thinks the shirt is inappropriate for the occasion.

17. Choose the best answer

a. He has three classes in a row.

b. His class begins at one o'clock.

c. His class meets for three hours.

d. He will be in class all afternoon.

18. Choose the best answer

a. The team won despite poor play.

b. The team has to play at least one game.

c. At least the football team played well.

d. The team should have won the game.

19. Choose the best answer

a. She needed warmer clothing than in previous summers.

b. She knitted two sweaters in August.

c. August was warmer than the rest of the summer.

d. She was unusually busy all summer.

20. Choose the best answer

a. If the man is going to the store.

b. How the man feels about the news.

c. If the man is going to lose his job.

d. Where the man heard the news.

21. Choose the best answer

a. It will be ready at four o'clock today.

b. It can be picked up at two o'clock tomorrow.

c. It will be ready in two hours.

d. Only two rolls will be ready on time.

22. Choose the best answer

a. He'll go to the party with the woman.

b. He met the man at the party.

c. He has changed his plans.

d. He has to work late.

23. Choose the best answer

a. Pay for some of the food.

b. Insist on choosing their own food.

c. Treat Gary to dinner some other time.

d. Thank Gary for his generous offer.

24. Choose the best answer

a. She used to work at a newspaper.

b. She'd like her supervisor’s opinion of her work.

c. She wishes she had a different kind of job.

d. She meets with her supervisor regularly.

25. Choose the best answer

a. She rearranged the chapters of her book.

b. She assured him that the chapter was finished.

c. She worked on the chapter for quite a while.

d. She wasn't sure how to end the book.

26. Choose the best answer

a. There's room to stack up the cans of coffee.

b. The store is out of coffee.

c. They should buy a lot of coffee.

d. They should wait for a better deal on coffee.

27. Choose the best answer

a. She works very hard.

b. She is very strict.

c. Her classes fill up quickly.

d. It's easy to get good grades in her courses.

28.Choose the best answer

a. The office already mailed the man's birth certificate.

b. The office no longer issues birth certificates.

c. The man doesn't have sufficient identification for his request.

d. The man will have to apply for his birth certificate in writing.

29. Choose the best answer

a. The woman has a choice of early flights.

b. Not many planes go to Washington.

c. The woman should take the earlier flight.

d. The six o'clock flight is already filled.

30. Choose the best answer

a. She would rather not invite other clubs to join them.

b. They should prepare extra refreshments.

c. The members of the club always eat a lot.

d. There was too much food at a previous meeting.

PART B

31. Choose the best answer

a. Get a ride home with Nancy.

b. Find a place to live.

c. Go to the store before it closes.

d. Carry his groceries home.

32. Choose the best answer

a. He didn't expect to buy a lot.

b. He had only one bag of groceries.

c. The supermarket is just down the block.

d. He thought he'd get a ride with the Kramers.

33. Choose the best answer

a. They are paying for his education.

b. They invited him to their party.

c. They took him on a vacation with them.

d. They let him live with them for free.

34. Choose the best answer

a. She was impressed by it.

b. It was a waste of money.

c. She was amazed it had opened so soon.

d. She didn't like it as much as the other wings.

35. Choose the best answer

a. He took a tour of the city.

b. He read about it.

c. He wrote an article about it.

d. He worked there as a guide.

36. Choose the best answer

a. They came from the original wing.

b. They’re made of the same material.

c. They’re similar in shape.

d. They were designed by the same person.

37. Choose the best answer

a. It was made of aluminum.

b. It wasn't large enough.

c. It wouldn't move in the wind.

d. It was too heavy to put up.

PART C

38. Choose the best answer

a. To review material that will be on a test.

b. To introduce a new professor.

c. To explain changes in the schedule.

d. To describe the contents of a paper.

39. Choose the best answer

a. At the beginning.

b. In the middle.

c. One week before the end.

d. At the end.

40. Choose the best answer

a. Administer an examination.

b. Present a conference paper.

c. Explain next week's schedule.

d. Take attendance in class.

41. Choose the best answer

a. A regular class will be given.

b. An optional review class will be given.

c. An exam will be given.

d. Class will be canceled.

42. Choose the best answer

a. Rock formations in the Nevada desert.

b. Graduate studies in anthropology.

c. Excavation techniques used in archeology.

d. Prehistoric desert people of Nevada.

43. Choose the best answer

a. They planned their migrations.

b. They didn’t travel far from their base camps.

c. They hid from their enemies in caves.

d. They planted seeds near their camps.

44. Choose the best answer

a. They had trouble finding it.

b. Lack of light made it impossible.

c. It was too small for a group to fit into.

d. Items stored by others took up most of the space.

45. Choose the best answer

a. Prehistoric desert people.

b. Migratory animals.

c. Food supplies and tools.

d. Growing plants.

46. Choose the best answer

a. To illustrate the size of some objects.

b. To introduce the next assignment.

c. To show some artifacts on display at the campus museum.

d. To demonstrate his photographic ability.

47. Choose the best answer

a. A comparison of fish to warm-blooded animals.

b. The difference between saltwater and freshwater environments.

c. The importance of fish to human beings.

d. How water has affected the development of fish.

48. Choose the best answer

a. It can't be compressed.

b. It is often polluted.

c. Its temperature often fluctuates dramatically.

d. It limits their size.

49. Choose the best answer

a. A whale

b. A human

c. A snake

d. A snail

50. Choose the best answer

a. Its skeleton

b. Its shape

c. Its senses

d. It body temperature

Your score is

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You only have 25 minute (1500 seconds) to complete the test and your answers will be submitted automatically.

The time is up. Thank you for taking TOEFL ITP Prediction Test Vol. 2 by Lister

Password for Section 3 - Reading Comprehension.
" reading835 "

Welcome to TOEFL ITP Online Prediction Test
Section 2 : Structure and Written Expression.

The test uses academic and social content to evaluate the English-language proficiency of non-native English speakers.

Information to Test takers

Structure and Written Expression.

All questions are multiple choice.

Number of Questions : 40 items

Total time allocation : 25 minutes

Please make sure you have a stable internet connection before starting the test.

Good Luck!

Please Complete "Section 1 : Listening Section" first to get the password

Complete the form below correctly before starting the test.

At the end of the test, the score report and certificate will be sent to your email directly.

Please make sure to type your full name correctly. Your name will be written on the Certificate.

Section 2: Structure and Written Expression
This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions for each type.

Structure
Directions: Questions 1 – 15 are incomplete sentence. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked (a), (b), (c), and (d). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.

1. .............. are low in cholesterol and often come from corn, soybean, or olives.

a. There are vegetable oils

b. Vegetable oils

c. The oil in vegetables

d. While vegetable oils

2. Wood that has been specially treated is ......................... regular wood.

a. as water resistant much more than

b. water resistant much more than

c. more than water resistant

d. much more water resistant than

3. By the process of evaporation, humans lose water ........ their skin.

a. through

b. but

c. of

d. at

4. A large corporation is broken down into many departments, each of which has ...............

a. responsibly unique

b. an unique responsibilities

c. uniquely responsibility

d. a unique responsibility

5. In 1875, while living in Paterson, N.J., ................ his first plans for the submarine.

a. submitted inventor John Holland

b. inventor submitted John Holland

c. inventor John Holland submitted

d. John Holland submitted inventor

6. The Babylonians invented a system of written numbers ............. the Mayan Indians of Central America.

a. so

b. and did

c. as did

d. so did

7. The flamingo is similar to the heron, stork, and spoonbill, but .............. a longer neck and webbed feet.

a. which has

b. has

c. have

d. having

8. In 1938, many people listening to the radio heard a report .............. had landed in New Jersey.

a. how beings from Mars

b. being from Mars

c. that being from Mars

d. that beings from Mars

9. For professional athletes, constant practice is required .............. in condition.

a. in order to stay

b. that a player stay

c. for to stay

d. to be staying

10. .................. was the meeting place of the Continent Congress.

a. In 1732, constructing Independence Hall

b. Constructing Independence Hall in 1732

c. Independence Hall was constructed in 1732

d. Constructed in 1732, Independence Hall

11. Even in the United States, Chines food is often ............... with chopsticks.

a. eaten

b. ate

c. eating

d. being eaten

12. All the members of Congress wanted to know .......... the president planned on postponing the vote on health care reform

a. whether

b. will

c. what

d. would

13. On summer weekends, there are ............. cars on the roads near the beach that walking often becomes the better choice.

a. so much

b. so many

c. such a lot

d. too many

14. ..............residents of this district will be voting on whether they should become independent of the rest of the city.

a. In a few years,

b. Last years,

c. For following year,

d. With the past year,

15. William Jennings Bryan was .............. rigid in his beliefs that not even three losing presidential bids could change him.

a. too

b. very

c. so

d. such

Written Expression
Directions: In questions 16 – 40, each sentence has four underlines words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (a), (b), (c), and (d). Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

16. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

17. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

18. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

19. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

20. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

21. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

22. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

23. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

24. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

25. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

26. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

27. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

28. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

29. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

30. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

31. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

32. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

33. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

34. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

35. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

36. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

37. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

38. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

39. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

40. Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

a. (A)

b. (B)

c. (C)

d. (D)

Your score is

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You only have 55 minute (3300 seconds) to complete the test and your answers will be submitted automatically.

The time is up. Thank you for taking TOEFL ITP Prediction Test Vol. 2 by Lister

Welcome to TOEFL ITP Online Prediction Test
Section 3 : Reading Comprehension

The test uses academic and social content to evaluate the English-language proficiency of non-native English speakers.

Information to Test takers

This is sections to the test including Reading Comprehension.

All questions are multiple choice.

Number of Questions : 50 items

Total time allocation : 55 minutes

Please make sure you have a stable internet connection before starting the test.

Good Luck!

Please Complete "Section 2 : Structure and Written Expression" first to get the password

Complete the form below correctly before starting the test.

At the end of the test, the score report and certificate will be sent to your email directly.

Please make sure to type your full name correctly. Your name will be written on the Certificate.

Section 3 Reading Comprehension
DIRECTIONS: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by several questions about it. For questions 1-50, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.

Passage One | Questions 1 – 9

1. The author refers to the ocean bottom as a “frontier” in line 2 because it

a. is not a popular area for scientific research

b. contains a wide variety of life forms

c. attracts courageous explorers

d. is an unknown territory

2. The word “inaccessible” in line 3 is closest in meaning to

a. unrecognizable

b. unreachable

c. unusable

d. unsafe

3. The author mentions outer space in line 6 because

a. the Earth's climate millions of years ago was similar to conditions in outer space

b. it is similar to the ocean floor in being alien to the human environment

c. rock formations in outer space are similar to those found on the ocean floor

d. techniques used by scientists to explore outer space were similar to those used in ocean exploration

4. Which of the following is true of the Glomar Challenger?

a. It is a type of submarine.

b. It is an ongoing project.

c. It has gone on over 100 voyages.

d. It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968.

5. The word “extracting” in line 12 is closest in meaning to

a. breaking

b. locating

c. removing

d. analyzing

6. The Deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was

a. an attempt to find new sources of oil and gas

b. the fust extensive exploration of the ocean bottom

c. composed of geologists from all over the world

d. funded entirely by the gas and oil industry

7. The word “strength” in line 18 is closest in meaning to

a. basis

b. purpose

c. discovery

d. endurance

8. The word “they” in line 23 refers to

a. years

b. climates

c. sediments

d. cores

9. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the Deep Sea Drilling Project?

a. Geologists were able to determine the Earth’s appearance hundreds of millions of years ago.

b. Two geological theories became more widely accepted by scientists.

c. Information was revealed about the Earth’s past climatic changes.

d. Geologists observed forms of marine life never before seen.

Passage Two | Questions 10 – 21

10. What does the passage mainly discuss?

a. Educational changes in Canadian society

b. Canada during the Second World War

c. Population trends in postwar Canada

d. Standards of living in Canada

11. According to the passage, when did Canada's baby boom begin?

a. In the decade after 1911

b. After 1945

c. During the depression of the 1930's

d. In 1966

12. The word “five” in line 3 refers to

a. Canadians

b. years

c. decades

d. marriages

13. The word “surging” in line 4 is closest in meaning to

a. new

b. extra

c. accelerating

d. surprising

14. The author suggests that in Canada during the 1950’s

a. the urban population decreased rapidly

b. fewer people married

c. economic conditions were poor

d. the birth rate was very high

15. The word “trend” in line 10 is closest in meaning to

a. tendency

b. aim

c. growth

d. directive

16. The word “peak” in line 13 is closest in meaning to

a. pointed

b. dismal

c. mountain

d. maximum

17. When was the birth rate in Canada at its lowest postwar level?

a. 1966

b. 1957

c. 1956

d. 1951

18. The author mentions all of the following as causes of declines in population growth after 1957 EXCEPT

a. people being better educated

b. people getting married earlier

c. better standards of living

d. couples buying houses

19. It can be inferred from the passage that before the Industrial Revolution

a. families were larger

b. population statistics were unreliable

c. the population grew steadily

d. economic conditions were bad

20. The word "It" in line 23 refers to

a. horizon

b. population wave

c. nine percent

d. first half

21. The phrase “prior to” in line 24 is closest in meaning to

a. behind

b. since

c. during

d. preceding

Passage Three | Questions 22 – 30

22. The word “Advocates” in line 3 is doses in meaning to which of the following?

a. Proponents

b. Merchants

c. Inspectors

d. Consumers

23. In line 4, the word “others” refers to

a. advantages

b. advocates

c. organic foods

d. products

24. The “welcome development” mentioned in line 6 is an increase in

a. interest in food safety and nutrition among North Americans

b. the nutritional quality of the typical North American diet

c. the amount of healthy food grown in North America

d. the number of consumers in North America

25. According to the first paragraph, which of the following is true about the term “organic foods”?

a. It is accepted by most nutritionists.

b. It has been used only in recent years.

c. It has no fixed meaning.

d. It is seldom used by consumers.

26. The word “unsubstantiated” in line 14 is closest in meaning to

a. unbelievable

b. uncontested

c. unpopular

d. unverified

27. The word “maintain” in line 19 is closest in meaning to

a. improve

b. monitor

c. preserve

d. restore

28. The author implies that there is cause for concern, if consumers with limited incomes buy organic foods instead of conventionally grown foods because

a. organic foods can be more expensive but are often no better than conventionally grown foods

b. many organic foods are actually less nutritious than similar conventionally grown foods

c. conventionally grown foods are more readily available than organic foods

d. too many farmers will stop using conventional methods to grow food crops

29. According to the last paragraph, consumers who believe that organic foods are better than conventionally grown foods are often

a. careless

b. mistaken

c. thrifty

d. wealthy

30. What is the author’s attitude toward the claims made by advocates of health foods?

a. Very enthusiastic

b. Somewhat favorable

c. Neutral

d. Skeptical

Passage Four | Questions 31 – 40

31. What does the passage mainly discuss?

a. The origins of theater

b. The role of ritual in modem dance

c. The importance of storytelling

d. The variety of early religious activities

32. The word “they” in line 4 refers to

a. seasonal changes

b. natural forces

c. theories

d. human beings

33. What aspect of drama does the author discuss in the first paragraph?

a. The reason drama is often unpredictable

b. The seasons in which dramas were performed

c. The connection between myths and dramatic plots

d. The importance of costumes in early drama

34. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a common element of theater and ritual?

a. Dance

b. Costumes

c. Music

d. Magic

35. The word “considerable” in line 14 is closest in meaning to

a. thoughtful

b. substantial

c. relational

d. ceremonial

36. The word “enactment” in line 15 is closest in meaning to

a. establishment

b. performance

c. authorization

d. performers

37. The word “they” in line 16 refers to

a. mistakes

b. costumes

c. animals

d. performers

38. According to the passage, what is the main difference between ritual and drama?

a. Ritual uses music whereas drama does not.

b. Ritual is shorter than drama.

c. Ritual requires fewer performers than drama.

d. Ritual has a religious purpose and drama does not.

39. The passage supports which of the following statements?

a. No one really knows how the theater began.

b. Myths are no longer represented dramatically.

c. Storytelling is an important part of dance.

d. Dramatic activities require the use of costumes.

40. Where in the passage does the author discuss the separation of the stage and the audience?

a. Lines 8 – 9

b. Lines 10 – 14

c. Lines 19 – 20

d. Lines 22 – 24

Passage Five | Questions 41 – 50

41. What does the passage mainly discuss?

a. Wartime expenditures

b. Problems facing the United States after the war

c. Methods of repairing the damage caused by the war

d. The results of government efforts to revive the economy

42. The word “Staggering” in line 1 is closest in meaning to

a. specialized

b. confusing

c. various

d. overwhelming

43. The word “devastated” in line 3 is closest in meaning to

a. developing

b. ruined

c. complicated

d. fragile

44. According to the passage, which of the following statements about the damage in the South is correct?

a. It was worse than in the North.

b. The cost was less than expected.

c. It was centered in the border states.

d. It was remedied rather quickly.

45. The passage refers to all of the following as necessary steps following the Civil War EXCEPT

a. helping soldiers readjust.

b. restructuring industry

c. returning government to normal

d. increasing taxes

46. The word “task” in line 15 refers to

a. raising the tax level

b. sensible financial choices

c. wise decisions about former slaves

d. reconstruction of damaged areas

47. Why does the author mention a popular song in lines 20 – 24?

a. To give an example of a Northern attitude towards the South

b. To illustrate the Northern love of music

c. To emphasize the cultural differences between the North and the South

d. To compare the Northern and Southern presidents

48. The word “them” in line 26 refers to

a. charges

b. leaders

c. days

d. irons

49. Which of the following can be inferred from the phrase “... it was unlikely that a jury from Virginia, a Southern Confederate state, would convict them” (lines 24 – 25)?

a. Virginians felt betrayed by Jefferson Davis.

b. A popular song insulted Virginia.

c. Virginians were loyal to their leaders.

d. All of the Virginia military leaders had been put in chains.

50. It can be inferred from the passage that President Johnson pardoned the Southern leaders in order to

a. raise money for the North

b. repair the physical damage in the South

c. prevent Northern leaders from punishing more Southerners

d. help the nation recover from the war

Your score is

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Password for Section 2 - Structure and Written Expression.
" structure231 "

Welcome to TOEFL ITP Online Prediction Test
Section 1 : Listening Section

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" reading835 "

Welcome to TOEFL ITP Online Prediction Test
Section 2 : Structure and Written Expression.

Welcome to TOEFL ITP Online Prediction Test
Section 3 : Reading Comprehension