TOEFL ITP PREDICTION TEST (VOL.1) For Lister Students Only 0% Welcome to TOEFL ITP Online Prediction Test (Vol.1) The test uses academic and social content to evaluate the English-language proficiency of non-native English speakers. Information to Test takers There are three sections to the test including Listening, Reading and Structure and Written Expression. All questions are multiple choice. Number of Questions : 140 items Total time allocation : 120 minutes Please make sure you have a stable internet connection before starting the test. Good Luck! Complete the form below correctly before starting the test. At the end of the test, the score report and certificate will be sent to your email directly. Please make sure to type your full name correctly. Your name will be written on the Certificate. Section 1 Listening Comprehension Part A Directions: In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers and choose the best answer. https://lister.co.id/wp-content/uploads/2021/08/Part-A.mp3 1. a. He is majoring in economics. b. He forgot to go to the bookstore. c. He bought the wrong book. d. He is selling his book to the woman. 2.Choose the best answer a. She appreciates the man’s help. b. Her presentation was somewhat long. c. She needed more time to prepare. d. She worked hard on her presentation. 3.Choose the best answer a. Search his closet b. Buy a new wallet c. Look in his coat pockets d. Take off his coat 4. Choose the best answer a. He forgot about his appointment with the woman. b. He did not finish his science project on time. c. He cannot help the woman with her science project. d. He will meet the woman at the library in 30 minutes. 5. Choose the best answer a. He has never been to a dormitory party before. b. He does not like his dormitory room. c. He agrees with the woman. d. He finds the party much too noisy. 6. Choose the best answer a. She is happy she does not have so many exams. b. She cannot help the man study. c. She will not do as well on the test as the man. d. The man should not complain. 7. Choose the best answer a. Karen is experienced at making salads. b. It is easy to make a good salad. c. The woman’s salads are just as good as Karen’s. d. He is not sure why Karen’s salads taste so good. 8. Choose the best answer a. Have the store deliver the couch b. Try to get a discount on the couch c. Delay the delivery of the couch d. Rearrange the furniture in her apartment 9. Choose the best answer a. He thought the exhibit had closed. b. He was confused about when the exhibit started. c. He saw the exhibit last weekend. d. He was not interested in meeting the photographer. 10. Choose the best answer a. Trying on clothes b. Buying a mirror c. Packing for a trip d. Looking at travel books 11. Choose the best answer a. Make sure the cables are connected properly b. Get a new printer c. Replace the cables on the printer d. Check the computer for lost files 12. Choose the best answer a. He does not know the way to the golf course. b. He is probably not free in the afternoon. c. He may not be a better golfer than the woman. d. He is glad the woman has her own equipment. 13. Choose the best answer a. Wait for his headache to go away b. Read a book instead c. Take a different kind of medicine d. Find out what the correct dosage is 14. Choose the best answer a. She did not plan to eat supper. b. She is washing up for supper. c. She did not want to come home. d. She was planning to eat at home. 15. Choose the best answer a. The man plays the piano well. b. The man should reconsider taking piano lessons. c. She does not enjoy listening to music. d. She does not have musical ability. 16. Choose the best answer a. He needed to call the bakery again. b. The bakery was not open. c. The bakery was sold out of bread. d. The bakery does not make French bread. 17. Choose the best answer a. Go to the interview early b. Do some exercise to relax c. Tell the interviewer about his qualifications d. Wear his new suit to the interview 18. Choose the best answer a. They do not know who painted the pictures. b. They think modern paintings are creative. c. They think children should be taught to paint. d. They do not like the paintings. 19. Choose the best answer a. She will get a ride home with her parents. b. She cannot go home until July. c. She quit her job before summer vacation. d. She is not going home for the summer. 20. Choose the best answer a. Jeff can give her directions to the rehearsal. b. The woman should tell Jeff to come to the rehearsal. c. Jeff might know when the rehearsal will end. d. He does not know whether Jeff will be at the rehearsal. 21. Choose the best answer a. He had to turn it off. b. He could not hear it. c. He enjoyed listening to it while working. d. He was disturbed by it. 22. Choose the best answer a. Putting up posters now is a waste of time. b. Most people have already voted. c. The election results have already been posted. d. Many voters are undecided. 23. Choose the best answer a. She has made a lot of progress. b. She was always good in chemistry. c. She travels a long distance to school. d. She has been studying chemistry for hours. 24. Choose the best answer a. The man is a much better skier than he used to be. b. The man lacks the ability needed to become a good skier. c. The man should not compare his ability to hers. d. The man should have taken skiing lessons as a child. 25. Choose the best answer a. His neighbors no longer grow peaches. b. He keeps forgetting to ask his neighbors for peaches. c. He is not sure what the woman is referring to. d. His neighbors planted a new peach tree after the storm. 26. Choose the best answer a. He knows the manager of Jack’s company. b. He wants to help Jack move. c. He is sorry he cannot help Jack manage his business. d. He is doubtful that Jack’s plans will succeed. 27. Choose the best answer a. Stay home and watch the news b. Watch the program at a classmate’s house c. Tell Professor Jones the news d. Meet Professor Jones at Dave’s house 28.Choose the best answer a. Place an ad in the newspaper b. Look in the student paper under apartments for rent c. Check the notices posted on campus d. Look at some apartments located near the student center 29. Choose the best answer a. He hopes the woman will not forget their lunch date. b. There are some tennis courts available right now. c. The tennis courts will be too wet to play on. d. He wants to continue the game tomorrow. 30. Choose the best answer a. The man had already received the phone. b. The phone will be installed soon. c. The phone was already on order. d. The phone had not been ordered. Part B Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will hear several questions. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers and choose the best answer. https://lister.co.id/wp-content/uploads/2021/08/PART-B.mp3 31. a. A new book b. An exhibit of photographs c. A lecture series on transportation d. Recent developments in urban transportation 32. Choose the best answer a. The editor of the school newspaper b. The professor’s student c. The coauthor of the book d. A subway company executive 33. Choose the best answer a. How it was financed b. The engineering of the tunnels c. Its representation in art and literature d. Its effects on city life 34. Choose the best answer a. Show the reporter some photographs b. Read an article in the campus newspaper c. Explain how the subway tunnels were built d. Examine a map of the New York subway system 35. Choose the best answer a. Setting up a computer class b. Meeting a computer software vendor c. Planning a computer fair d. Arranging a trip to a computer company 36. Choose the best answer a. They attended a similar one the day before. b. Too few members are interested in the activity. c. The room is not available that evening. d. The weather may be bad. 37. Choose the best answer a. At a computer software company b. Far from the university c. At the man’s house d. On the university campus 38. Choose the best answer a. The man will contact all the members. b. A radio announcement will be made. c. They will talk to the person in charge of publicity. d. They will each call some of the members. Part C Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. After each talk, you will hear some questions. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers and choose the best answer. https://lister.co.id/wp-content/uploads/2021/08/PART-C.mp3 39. a. To introduce a recording of a Native American legend b. To encourage young people to become storytellers c. To compare oral and written traditions d. To tell a famous story 40. Choose the best answer a. They were used to teach children the language. b. They carried news from one tribe to another. c. They preserved the society’s history. d. They served as chiefs. 41. Choose the best answer a. They are more comprehensive than earlier recordings. b. They provide income for the Crow people. c. Today’s children do not enjoy Native American stories. d. Without recordings the stories might be forgotten. 42. Choose the best answer a. Children have better memories than adults do. b. The traditional storytellers have died. c. He is interested in the children’s reactions. d. The storytellers are too busy to be interviewed. 43. Choose the best answer a. To prepare students for the next reading assignment b. To provide background information for a class discussion c. To review material from a previous class d. To prepare for a quiz on chapter six 44. Choose the best answer a. Insurance companies b. Sailors c. Manufacturers d. Merchants 45. Choose the best answer a. The distance the merchandise had to be shipped b. The number of insurance companies available at the time c. The amount of danger involved in shipping the goods d. The type of vessel used to transport the goods 46. Choose the best answer a. Only four types of policies still exist today. b. They are cheaper than the ones in the Middle Ages. c. They include features similar to earlier policies. d. The interest rates are based on early methods of calculation. 47. Choose the best answer a. How they enjoy their food b. How they communicate with each other c. How they depend on the Sun d. How they learn different dances 48. Choose the best answer a. A signal that it is tired b. A message about a food source c. Acceptance of another honeybee to its hive d. A warning that danger is near 49. Choose the best answer a. It is not verbal. b. It is not informative. c. It is not effective. d. It is not complicated. 50. Choose the best answer a. Read the chapters on honeybee communication b. Discuss the different ways humans communicate c. Give examples of other types of animal communication d. Write a paper on the various forms of communication Section 2 Reading Comprehension Directions: In the Reading Comprehension section, you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a number of questions about it. You have to choose the one best answer—(A), (B), (C), or (D)—to each question. 1. The word “bound” in line 1 is closest in meaning to a. led b. protected c. tied d. strengthened 2. The National Republican Party is mentioned in line 8 as an example of a group a. from Baltimore b. of learned people c. owning a hotel d. holding a convention 3. The word “assembling” in line 14 is closest in meaning to a. announcing b. motivating c. gathering d. contracting 4. The word “ones” in line 16 refers to a. hotels b. conventions c. kinds d. representatives 5. The word “it” in line 22 refers to a. European inn b. host c. community d. public 6. It can be inferred from the passage that early hotelkeepers in the United States were a. active politicians b. European immigrants c. professional builders d. influential citizens 7. Which of the following statements about early American hotels is NOT mentioned in the passage? a. Travelers from abroad did not enjoy staying in them. b. Conventions were held in them. c. People used them for both business and pleasure. d. They were important to the community. 8. The word “medium” in line 5 could be used to refer to a. stone or wood b. mallet and chisel c. technique d. principle 9. What is one of the fundamental principles of direct carving? a. A sculptor must work with talented assistants. b. The subject of a sculpture should be derived from classical stories. c. The material is an important element in a sculpture. d. Designing a sculpture is a more creative activity than carving it. 10. The word “dictates” in line 8 is closest in meaning to a. reads aloud b. determines c. includes d. records 11. How does direct carving differ from the nineteenth-century tradition of sculpture? a. Sculptors are personally involved in the carving of a piece. b. Sculptors find their inspiration in neoclassical sources. c. Sculptors have replaced the mallet and chisel with other tools. d. Sculptors receive more formal training. 12. The word “witnessed” in line 23 is closest in meaning to a. influenced b. studied c. validated d. observed 13. Where did Robert Laurent learn to carve? a. New York b. Africa c. The South Pacific d. Paris 14. The phase “a break with” in line 30 is closest in meaning to a. a destruction of b. a departure from c. a collapse of d. a solution to 15. The piece titled The Priestess has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: a. The design is stylized. b. It is made of marble. c. The carving is not deep. d. It depicts the front of a person. 16. What does the passage mainly discuss? a. How birds find and store food b. How birds maintain body heat inthe winter c. Why birds need to establish territory d. Why some species of birds nest together 17. The word “conserve” in line 3 is closest in meaning to a. retain b. watch c. locate d. share 18. Ptarmigan keep warm in the winter by a. huddling together on the ground with other birds b. building nests in trees c. burrowing into dense patches of vegetation d. digging tunnels into the snow 19. The word “magnified” in line 6 is closest in meaning to a. caused b. modified c. intensified d. combined 20. The author mentions kinglets in line 9 as an example of birds that a. protect themselves by nesting in holes b. nest with other species of birds c. nest together for warmth d. usually feed and nest in pairs 21. The word “forage” in line 12 is closest in meaning to a. fly b. assemble c. feed d. rest 22. Which of the following statements about lesser and common kestrels is true? a. The lesser kestrel and the common kestrel have similar diets. b. The lesser kestrel feeds sociably, but the common kestrel does not. c. The common kestrel nests in larger flocks than does the lesser kestrel. d. The common kestrel nests in trees; the lesser kestrel nests on the ground. 23. The word "counteracted" in line 24 is closest in meaning to a. suggested b. negated c. measured d. shielded 24. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as an advantage derived by birds that huddle together while sleeping? a. Some members of the flock warn others of impending dangers. b. Staying together provides a greater amount of heat for the whole flock. c. Some birds in the flock function as information centers for others who are looking for food. d. Several members of the flock care for the young. 25. Which of the following is a disadvantage of communal roosts that is mentioned in the passage? a. Diseases easily spread among the birds. b. Groups are more attractive to predators than individual birds are. c. Food supplies are quickly depleted. d. Some birds in the group will attack the others. 26. The word “they” in line 25 refers to a. a few birds b. mass roosts c. predators d. trees 27. What does the passage mainly discuss? a. Difficulties of writing satiric literature b. Popular topics of satire c. New philosophies emerging from satiric literature d. Reasons for the popularity of satire 28. The word “realization” in line 6 is closest in meaning to a. certainty b. awareness c. surprise d. confusion 29. Why does the author mention Don Quixote, Brave New World, and A Modest Proposal in lines 6–8 ? a. They are famous examples of satiric literature. b. They present commonsense solutions to problems. c. They are appropriate for readers of all ages. d. They are books with similar stories. 30. The word “aesthetically” in line 13 is closest in meaning to a. artistically b. exceptionally c. realistically d. dependably 31. Which of the following can be found in satiric literature? a. Newly emerging philosophies b. Odd combinations of objects and ideas c. Abstract discussion of morals and ethics d. Wholesome characters who are unselfish 32. According to the passage, there is a need for satire because people need to be a. informed about new scientific developments b. exposed to original philosophies when they are formulated c. reminded that popular ideas are often inaccurate d. told how they can be of service to their communities 33. The word “refreshing” in line 19 is closest in meaning to a. popular b. ridiculous c. meaningful d. unusual 34. The word “they” in line 22 refers to a. people b. media c. ideals d. movies 35. The word “devote” in line 25 is closest in meaning to a. distinguish b. feel affection c. prefer d. dedicate 36. As a result of reading satiric literature, readers will be most likely to a. teach themselves to write fiction b. accept conventional points of view c. become better informed about current affairs d. reexamine their opinions and values 37. The various purposes of satire include all of the following EXCEPT a. exposing false values b. reminding readers of the truth c. brushing away illusions d. introducing readers to unfamiliar situations 38. Why does the author mention “service of humanity” in line 25 ? a. Readers appreciate knowing about it. b. It is an ideal that is rarely achieved. c. Popular media often distort such stories. d. People need to be reminded to take action. 39. The word “major” in line 1 is closest in meaning to a. intense b. principal c. huge d. unique 40. What does the second paragraph mainly discuss? a. The Milky Way b. Major categories of galaxies c. How elliptical galaxies are formed d. Differences between irregular and spiral galaxies 41. The word "which" in line 7 refers to a. dust b. gas c. pattern d. galaxy 42. According to the passage, new stars are formed in spiral galaxies due to a. an explosion of gas b. the compression of gas and dust c. the combining of old stars d. strong radio emissions 43. The word “symmetrical” in line 9 is closest in meaning to a. proportionally balanced b. commonly seen c. typically large d. steadily growing 44. The word “obvious” in line 10 is closest in meaning to a. discovered b. apparent c. understood d. simplistic 45. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true of elliptical galaxies? a. They are the largest galaxies. b. They mostly contain old stars. c. They contain a high amount of interstellar gas. d. They have a spherical shape. 46. Which of the following characteristics of radio galaxies is mentioned in the passage? a. They are a type of elliptical galaxy. b. They are usually too small to be seen with a telescope. c. They are closely related to irregular galaxies. d. They are not as bright as spiral galaxies. 47. What percentage of galaxies is irregular? a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% 48. The word “they” in line 21 refers to a. galaxies b. distances c. yardsticks d. intervals 49. Why does the author mention the Virgo galaxy and the Andromeda galaxy in the third paragraph? a. To explain why certain galaxies cannot be seen by a telescope b. To describe the effect that distance has on visibility c. To compare the ages of two relatively young galaxies d. To emphasize the vast distances of the galaxies from Earth 50. The word “dominated” in line 26 is closest in meaning to a. were prevalent in b. threatened c. replaced d. were developing in Section 3 Structure and Written Expression Structure Directions: Questions 1–15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. 1. Simple photographic lenses cannot ------- sharp, undistorted images over a wide field. a. to form b. are formed c. forming d. form 2. Of all the factors affecting agricultural yields, weather is the one ------- the most. a. it influences farmers b. that influences farmers c. farmers that it influences d. why farmers influence it 3. Beverly Sills, -------, assumed directorship of the New York City Opera in 1979. a. be a star soprano b. was a star soprano c. a star soprano and d. a star soprano 4. ------- of tissues is known as histology. a. Studying scientific b. The scientific study c. To study scientifically d. That is scientific studying 5. With the exception of mercury, ------- at standard temperature and pressure. a. the metallic elements are solid b. which is a solid metallic element c. metallic elements being solid d. since the metallic elements are solid 6. Dehydration is ------- that a land animal faces. a. the often greatest hazard b. the greatest often hazard c. often the greatest hazard d. often the hazard greatest 7. By tracking the eye of a hurricane, forecasters can determine the speed at which -------. a. is a storm moving b. a storm is moving c. is moving a storm d. a moving storm 8. The publication of Adventures of Huckleberry Finn helped make Mark Twain one of America’s ------- literary figures. a. most famous b. the most famous c. are most famous d. and most famous 9. Technology will play a key role in ------- future lifestyles. a. shaped b. to shape c. shaping d. shape of 10. The computer has dramatically affected ------- many products are designed. a. the way b. which way do c. is the way d. that the way 11. The early railroads were ------- the existing arteries of transportation: roads, turnpikes, and canals and other waterways. a. short lines that connected b. connected by short lines c. short connecting lines d. those short lines connected 12. ------- as a masterpiece, a work of art must transcend the ideals of the period in which it was created. a. Ranks b. The ranking c. To be ranked d. For being ranked 13. Jackie Robinson, ------- to play baseball in the major leagues, joined the Brooklyn Dodgers in 1947. a. the African American who first b. thefirstAfricanAmerican c. was the first African American d. the first and an African American who 14. During the flood of 1927, the Red Cross, ------- out of emergency headquarters in Mississippi, set up temporary shelters for the homeless. a. operates b. is operating c. has operated d. operating 15. In bacteria and in other organisms, ------- is DNA that provides the genetic information. a. both b. which c. and d. it Written Expression Directions: In questions 16–40, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (C) b. (D) c. (A) d. (B) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. a. (A) b. (B) c. (C) d. (D) Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte 0% Restart quiz Exit + What do my TOEFL ITP SCORE and my LEVEL mean? Download the explanations here.
