TOEFL ITP PREDICTION TEST (VOL.1)

For Lister Students Only

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Welcome to TOEFL ITP Online Prediction Test (Vol.1)

The test uses academic and social content to evaluate the English-language proficiency of non-native English speakers.

 

Information to Test takers

There are three sections to the test including Listening, Reading and Structure and Written Expression.

All questions are multiple choice.

Number of Questions : 140 items

Total time allocation : 120 minutes

Please make sure you have a stable internet connection before starting the test.

Good Luck!

Complete the form below correctly before starting the test.

At the end of the test, the score report and certificate will be sent to your email directly.

Please make sure to type your full name correctly. Your name will be written on the Certificate.

Section 1
Listening Comprehension

Part A
Directions: In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers and choose the best answer.

1.

2.Choose the best answer

3.Choose the best answer

4. Choose the best answer

5. Choose the best answer

6. Choose the best answer

7. Choose the best answer

8. Choose the best answer

9. Choose the best answer

10. Choose the best answer

11. Choose the best answer

12. Choose the best answer

13. Choose the best answer

14. Choose the best answer

15. Choose the best answer

16. Choose the best answer

17. Choose the best answer

18. Choose the best answer

19. Choose the best answer

20. Choose the best answer

21. Choose the best answer

22. Choose the best answer

23. Choose the best answer

24. Choose the best answer

25. Choose the best answer

26. Choose the best answer

27. Choose the best answer

28.Choose the best answer

29. Choose the best answer

30. Choose the best answer

Part B

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will hear several questions. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers and choose the best answer.

31.

32. Choose the best answer

33. Choose the best answer

34. Choose the best answer

35. Choose the best answer

36. Choose the best answer

37. Choose the best answer

38. Choose the best answer

Part C
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. After each talk, you will hear some questions. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers and choose the best answer.

39.

40. Choose the best answer

41. Choose the best answer

42. Choose the best answer

43. Choose the best answer

44. Choose the best answer

45. Choose the best answer

46. Choose the best answer

47. Choose the best answer

48. Choose the best answer

49. Choose the best answer

50. Choose the best answer

Section 2
Reading Comprehension

Directions: In the Reading Comprehension section, you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a number of questions about it. You have to choose the one best answer—(A), (B), (C), or (D)—to each question.

 

1. The word “bound” in line 1 is closest in meaning to

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2. The National Republican Party is mentioned in line 8 as an example of a group

3. The word “assembling” in line 14 is closest in meaning to

4. The word “ones” in line 16 refers to

5. The word “it” in line 22 refers to

6. It can be inferred from the passage that early hotelkeepers in the United States were

7. Which of the following statements about early American hotels is NOT mentioned in the passage?

8. The word “medium” in line 5 could be used to refer to

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9. What is one of the fundamental principles of direct carving?

10. The word “dictates” in line 8 is closest in meaning to

11. How does direct carving differ from the nineteenth-century tradition of sculpture?

12. The word “witnessed” in line 23 is closest in meaning to

13. Where did Robert Laurent learn to carve?

14. The phase “a break with” in line 30 is closest in meaning to

15. The piece titled The Priestess has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

16. What does the passage mainly discuss?

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17. The word “conserve” in line 3 is closest in meaning to

18. Ptarmigan keep warm in the winter by

19. The word “magnified” in line 6 is closest in meaning to

20. The author mentions kinglets in line 9 as an example of birds that

21. The word “forage” in line 12 is closest in meaning to

22. Which of the following statements about lesser and common kestrels is true?

23. The word "counteracted" in line 24 is closest in meaning to

24. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as an advantage derived by birds that huddle together while sleeping?

25. Which of the following is a disadvantage of communal roosts that is mentioned in the passage?

26. The word “they” in line 25 refers to

27. What does the passage mainly discuss?

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28. The word “realization” in line 6 is closest in meaning to

29. Why does the author mention
Don Quixote, Brave New World, and A Modest Proposal in lines 6–8 ?

30. The word “aesthetically” in line 13 is closest in meaning to

31. Which of the following can be found in satiric literature?

32. According to the passage, there is a need for satire because people need to be

33. The word “refreshing” in line 19 is closest in meaning to

34. The word “they” in line 22 refers to

35. The word “devote” in line 25 is closest in meaning to

36. As a result of reading satiric literature, readers will be most likely to

37. The various purposes of satire include all of the following EXCEPT

38. Why does the author mention “service of humanity” in line 25 ?

39. The word “major” in line 1 is closest in meaning to

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40. What does the second paragraph mainly discuss?

41. The word "which" in line 7 refers to

42. According to the passage, new stars are formed in spiral galaxies due to

43. The word “symmetrical” in line 9 is closest in meaning to

44. The word “obvious” in line 10 is closest in meaning to

45. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true of elliptical galaxies?

46. Which of the following characteristics of radio galaxies is mentioned in the passage?

47. What percentage of galaxies is irregular?

48. The word “they” in line 21 refers to

49. Why does the author mention the Virgo galaxy and the Andromeda galaxy in the third paragraph?

50. The word “dominated” in line 26 is closest in meaning to

Section 3
Structure and Written Expression

Structure
Directions: Questions 1–15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

1. Simple photographic lenses cannot ------- sharp, undistorted images over a wide field.

2. Of all the factors affecting agricultural yields, weather is the one ------- the most.

3. Beverly Sills, -------, assumed directorship of the New York City Opera in 1979.

4. ------- of tissues is known as histology.

5. With the exception of mercury, ------- at standard temperature and pressure.

6. Dehydration is ------- that a land animal faces.

7. By tracking the eye of a hurricane, forecasters can determine the speed at which -------.

8. The publication of Adventures of Huckleberry Finn helped make Mark Twain one of America’s ------- literary figures.

9. Technology will play a key role in ------- future lifestyles.

10. The computer has dramatically affected ------- many products are designed.

11. The early railroads were ------- the existing arteries of transportation: roads, turnpikes, and canals and other waterways.

12. ------- as a masterpiece, a work of art must transcend the ideals of the period in which it was created.

13. Jackie Robinson, ------- to play baseball in the major leagues, joined the Brooklyn Dodgers in 1947.

14. During the flood of 1927, the Red Cross, ------- out of emergency headquarters in Mississippi, set up temporary shelters for the homeless.

15. In bacteria and in other organisms, ------- is DNA that provides the genetic information.

Written Expression

Directions: In questions 16–40, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

 

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Choose the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

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